Upgraded case-based practice focused on clinically relevant history, examination, diagnostic synthesis, red flags, safety, and referral. The module uses the current four-response, single-best-answer format.
50Clinical cases
260Questions
4Response options
65 eachA–D answer balance
Educational use: This independent BoardQBank resource is not affiliated with NABNE or NPLEX. All items are marked pretest and require formal subject-matter-expert and psychometric review before scored or high-stakes use.
Diagnosis GEAPhysical & Clinical Diagnosis SEA
Exact balanceA 65 · B 65 · C 65 · D 65
Server checkedAnswer keys and rationales are not delivered in the initial page HTML.
Structured reviewCompetency, difficulty, safety priority, rationale, and references.
Patient profile
A 58-year-old woman presents with 40 minutes of pressure-like discomfort in the upper
abdomen and lower chest. The symptoms began while she was carrying groceries upstairs. She
reports nausea, sweating, unusual fatigue and mild shortness of breath.
Medical history
● Type 2 diabetes mellitus
● Hypertension
● Dyslipidemia
Medications
● Metformin
● Losartan
● Atorvastatin
Vital signs
● Temperature: 36.8°C
● Blood pressure: 154/92 mmHg
● Heart rate: 102/min
● Respiratory rate: 22/min
● Oxygen saturation: 94% on room air
Physical examination
The patient appears anxious and diaphoretic. Cardiac rhythm is regular. Lungs are clear. The
discomfort is not reproduced by chest-wall palpation.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-001
Which additional history question is most important?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-002
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-003
Which finding would most strongly suggest aortic dissection rather than acute coronary syndrome?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
NPLEX trap
Do not diagnose reflux, anxiety or musculoskeletal pain before excluding myocardial ischemia in
a patient with compatible symptoms and cardiovascular risk factors.
Case overviewThe essential sequence is:
Recognize an anginal equivalent → identify cardiovascular risk → prioritize acute
coronary syndrome → activate emergency care.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association. Current acute coronary syndrome guideline.
Patient profile
A 34-year-old woman presents with sudden shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic chest
pain. She returned from a 10-hour flight two days ago.
Medical history
● No previous cardiopulmonary disease
● No recent infection
Medications
● Combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.2°C
● Blood pressure: 108/68 mmHg
● Heart rate: 118/min
● Respiratory rate: 28/min
● Oxygen saturation: 90% on room air
Physical examination
Breath sounds are equal bilaterally. The right calf is swollen and tender and measures 3 cm
larger than the left calf.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-005
Which historical feature most increases this patient’s risk?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-006
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-007
Which examination finding would make tension pneumothorax more likely?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
NPLEX trap
A normal or nearly normal lung examination does not exclude pulmonary embolism.
Case overviewThe diagnostic pattern is:
Venous thromboembolism risk + unilateral leg findings + sudden pleuritic symptoms +
hypoxemia.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Heart Association/American College of Cardiology. Current guidance for acute pulmonary embolism and venous thromboembolism.
Patient profile
A 69-year-old man develops sudden difficulty speaking and weakness of the right arm while
eating breakfast. His spouse states that he was normal 35 minutes earlier.
Medical history
● Hypertension
● Atrial fibrillation
● Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Medications
● Metformin
● Amlodipine
● The patient stopped taking his anticoagulant two months ago
Vital signs
● Temperature: 36.7°C
● Blood pressure: 182/98 mmHg
● Heart rate: 106/min, irregularly irregular
● Respiratory rate: 18/min
● Oxygen saturation: 96%
Physical examination
The patient has right facial droop, right-arm weakness and expressive aphasia.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-009
Which historical information is most important to establish immediately?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-010
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-011
Which rapid bedside assessment is essential because it can mimic stroke?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
NPLEX trap
Do not give oral food, fluids or medication until swallowing safety has been assessed.
Case overviewThe correct priority is:
Identify sudden focal neurological loss → determine last-known-well time → check
glucose → activate the stroke pathway.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Heart Association/American Stroke Association. Current acute ischemic stroke guidance.
Canadian Stroke Best Practices. Current recommendations.
Patient profile
A 23-year-old man reports abdominal pain that began near the umbilicus approximately 14
hours ago. The pain has migrated to the right lower quadrant. He has anorexia, nausea and one
episode of vomiting.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 38.0°C
● Blood pressure: 122/76 mmHg
● Heart rate: 98/min
● Respiratory rate: 18/min
Physical examination
There is localized tenderness and guarding at McBurney point. Coughing increases the pain.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-013
Which symptom sequence is most characteristic of acute appendicitis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-014
Which examination maneuver may support the diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-015
Which finding would most strongly suggest perforation or generalized peritonitis?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Gastroenteritis
● Mesenteric adenitis
● Crohn disease
● Ureteric stone
● Testicular torsion
● Ectopic pregnancy or ovarian pathology in patients capable of pregnancy
NPLEX trap
Vomiting usually follows the onset of pain in appendicitis. Vomiting that clearly precedes pain
may suggest another gastrointestinal cause.
Case overviewThe classic diagnostic sequence is:
Central abdominal pain → migration to the right lower quadrant → localized peritoneal
findings → urgent referral.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
World Society of Emergency Surgery. Current emergency general-surgery guidance.
Patient profile
A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden left-sided pelvic pain, vaginal spotting, dizziness
and pain near the right shoulder. Her last menstrual period was approximately seven weeks
ago.
Medical history
● Previous pelvic inflammatory disease
Vital signs
● Temperature: 36.6°C
● Blood pressure: 88/58 mmHg
● Heart rate: 124/min
● Respiratory rate: 24/min
Physical examination
She appears pale and distressed. The abdomen is tender with guarding.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-017
Which point in the history is most clinically important?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-018
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-019
What is the likely mechanism of the shoulder pain?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Ovarian torsion
● Ruptured ovarian cyst
● Pelvic inflammatory disease
● Spontaneous abortion
● Appendicitis
NPLEX trap
A patient with reproductive potential, abdominal or pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding should be
considered pregnant until pregnancy has been reasonably excluded.
Case overviewThe red-flag combination is:
Missed period + unilateral pelvic pain + bleeding + shock or shoulder pain.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. Current practice guidance.
Patient profile
A 21-year-old university resident presents with severe headache, fever, vomiting and
photophobia. His roommate reports that he has become increasingly confused over the last two
hours.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 39.6°C
● Blood pressure: 96/60 mmHg
● Heart rate: 126/min
● Respiratory rate: 24/min
Physical examination
The patient is drowsy and has marked neck stiffness. A non-blanching petechial rash is present
on the lower extremities.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-021
Which finding is the strongest indication of a medical emergency?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-022
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-023
Which examination finding could indicate increased intracranial pressure?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Viral meningitis
● Encephalitis
● Subarachnoid hemorrhage
● Severe migraine
● Brain abscess
NPLEX trap
Absence of every component of the classic meningitis triad does not exclude meningitis. Altered
mental status or petechiae substantially increases urgency.
Case overviewThe priority sequence is:
Recognize CNS infection → identify sepsis or meningococcemia → use precautions →
transfer immediately.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
Infectious Diseases Society of America. Current clinical practice guidance.
Surviving Sepsis Campaign. Current sepsis and septic-shock guidance.
Patient profile
A 52-year-old man presents with severe low-back pain following heavy lifting. The pain initially
radiated down the left leg. During the last 12 hours, he has developed bilateral leg weakness
and numbness around the perineum.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.0°C
● Blood pressure: 136/84 mmHg
● Heart rate: 94/min
● Respiratory rate: 16/min
Physical examination
There is reduced bilateral ankle strength and diminished lower-extremity reflexes.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-025
Which additional history question is most important?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-026
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-027
Which additional physical finding would support the diagnosis?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important alternative diagnosis
Spinal epidural abscess should be strongly considered when back pain and neurological deficits
occur with:
● Fever
● Immunosuppression
● Recent bacteremia
● Spinal procedure
● Injection-drug use
NPLEX trap
Do not perform spinal manipulation when cauda equina syndrome, spinal cord compression,
fracture, malignancy or infection is suspected.
Case overviewThe essential red flags are:
Saddle anesthesia + bilateral weakness + bladder or bowel dysfunction.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American College of Radiology. Current Appropriateness Criteria for spine-related presentations.
Patient profile
A 66-year-old woman presents with rapidly progressive pain and swelling of the right knee. She
cannot bear weight and reports fever and chills.
Medical history
● Type 2 diabetes mellitus
● Rheumatoid arthritis
● Right knee prosthesis
Medications
● Methotrexate
● Prednisone
● Metformin
Vital signs
● Temperature: 39.0°C
● Blood pressure: 104/66 mmHg
● Heart rate: 116/min
● Respiratory rate: 22/min
Physical examination
The right knee is hot, swollen and erythematous. Both active and passive range of motion cause
severe pain.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-029
Which feature most strongly supports an intra-articular process?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Gout
● Pseudogout
● Hemarthrosis
● Reactive arthritis
● Acute inflammatory arthritis
NPLEX trap
Do not inject corticosteroid into an acutely inflamed joint until infection has been adequately
excluded.
Case overviewThe high-risk pattern is:
Acute hot monoarthritis + fever + severe passive-motion pain + immunosuppression or
prosthetic joint.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
Infectious Diseases Society of America. Current clinical practice guidance.
Surviving Sepsis Campaign. Current sepsis and septic-shock guidance.
Patient profile
A 42-year-old painter reports gradually worsening right-shoulder pain over three months. The
pain is aggravated by overhead work and when lying on the affected side.
Vital signs
Normal.
Physical examination
● Active abduction is painful between approximately 60° and 120°.
● Passive range of motion is nearly normal.
● Hawkins–Kennedy test is positive.
● There is no deformity or neurological deficit.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-033
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-034
Which finding would make adhesive capsulitis more likely?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-035
Which test is most useful when evaluating a possible full-thickness rotator-cuff tear?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-036
Which new finding would warrant more urgent imaging or specialist assessment?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Rotator-cuff tear
● Adhesive capsulitis
● Acromioclavicular joint disease
● Biceps tendinopathy
● Cervical radiculopathy
● Glenohumeral arthritis
NPLEX trap
Preserved passive motion with painful active overhead movement supports rotator-cuff or
subacromial pathology. Loss of passive motion suggests adhesive capsulitis or advanced joint
disease.
Case overviewThis case tests non-emergency clinical reasoning:
Identify the movement pattern → distinguish active from passive restriction → select the
appropriate orthopedic test.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. Current clinical guidance and appropriate-use criteria.
Patient profile
A 32-year-old woman is brought by her sister because she has slept fewer than two hours per
night for six days. She speaks rapidly, says she has discovered a method to become a
billionaire and has spent $18,000 during the past week.
She reports hearing a voice telling her that she has been selected for a “special global mission.”
She becomes irritable when her family questions her plans.
Medical history
● Previous depressive episode
● No known neurological disease
Medications
● Sertraline, started six weeks ago
● The patient recently doubled the dose without medical advice
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.1°C
● Blood pressure: 148/90 mmHg
● Heart rate: 108/min
● Respiratory rate: 18/min
Mental-status examination
● Bright, flamboyant clothing
● Psychomotor agitation
● Pressured speech
● Expansive and irritable mood
● Flight of ideas
● Grandiose delusions
● Auditory hallucinations
● Poor insight and impaired judgment
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-037
Which issue must be assessed immediately?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-038
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-039
Which alternative cause must be actively considered?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
NPLEX trap
A patient with mania may deny feeling unwell. Lack of subjective distress does not indicate
clinical stability.
Case overviewThe clinical priority is:
Identify mania → assess psychosis and safety → consider medication or substance
causes → arrange urgent psychiatric evaluation.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Psychiatric Association. DSM-5-TR and current practice guidance.
Goldfrank’s Toxicologic Emergencies. Current edition.
11
Acute Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding
4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral
GEA: DiagnosisSEA: Physical & Clinical Diagnosis
Clinical case
Patient profile
A 61-year-old man presents with dizziness, weakness and two episodes of vomiting dark,
coffee-ground material. He reports passing a black, sticky stool earlier that morning.
Medical history
● Osteoarthritis
● Hypertension
● Previous dyspepsia
Medications
● Ibuprofen, 600 mg three times daily
● Amlodipine
Vital signs
● Temperature: 36.7°C
● Blood pressure: 92/58 mmHg while supine
● Heart rate: 118/min
● Respiratory rate: 22/min
● Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air
Physical examination
The patient appears pale and diaphoretic. His abdomen is mildly tender in the epigastric region
without rigidity. Rectal examination reveals black, tarry stool.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-041
Which medication is the most important risk factor for this presentation?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-042
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-043
Which additional historical finding would increase concern for esophageal variceal bleeding?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Peptic-ulcer bleeding
● Esophageal or gastric varices
● Erosive gastritis
● Mallory–Weiss tear
● Upper gastrointestinal malignancy
NPLEX trap
Do not be falsely reassured by the absence of severe abdominal pain. Significant
gastrointestinal hemorrhage may occur with minimal abdominal tenderness.
Case overview
Hematemesis or coffee-ground emesis + melena + hemodynamic instability = emergency
gastrointestinal hemorrhage.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American College of Gastroenterology. Current upper gastrointestinal and ulcer-bleeding guidance.
12
Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral
GEA: DiagnosisSEA: Physical & Clinical Diagnosis
Clinical case
Patient profile
A 67-year-old woman presents with sudden severe pain in the right eye, blurred vision,
headache, nausea and vomiting. The symptoms began while she was watching a movie in a
dark theatre.
Medical history
● Hyperopia
● Hypertension
Medications
● Hydrochlorothiazide
● Recently started an anticholinergic medication for urinary urgency
Vital signs
● Temperature: 36.9°C
● Blood pressure: 168/94 mmHg
● Heart rate: 102/min
Physical examination
The right eye is intensely red. The cornea appears cloudy. The right pupil is moderately dilated,
irregular and poorly reactive to light. Visual acuity is reduced.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-045
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-046
Which symptom most strongly distinguishes this condition from uncomplicated conjunctivitis?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Anterior uveitis
● Keratitis
● Corneal abrasion
● Scleritis
● Conjunctivitis
NPLEX trap
A red eye accompanied by severe pain, impaired vision, vomiting or an abnormal pupil should
not be treated as routine conjunctivitis.
Case overview
Painful red eye + reduced vision + cloudy cornea + fixed or poorly reactive pupil =
emergency referral.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Academy of Ophthalmology. Current Preferred Practice Pattern guidance.
13
Thyroid Storm
4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral
GEA: DiagnosisSEA: Physical & Clinical Diagnosis
Clinical case
Patient profile
A 43-year-old woman with Graves disease presents with fever, agitation, vomiting, diarrhea and
severe palpitations. She stopped taking methimazole three weeks ago because she felt better.
She developed cough and dysuria several days ago.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 40.1°C
● Blood pressure: 154/72 mmHg
● Heart rate: 164/min, irregularly irregular
● Respiratory rate: 30/min
● Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air
Physical examination
The patient is restless and confused. Her skin is hot and moist. A diffuse goitre and fine hand
tremor are present. Bibasilar crackles and mild lower-extremity edema are noted.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-049
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-050
Which factor most likely precipitated this episode?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-051
Which finding most strongly distinguishes thyroid storm from uncomplicated hyperthyroidism?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Sepsis
● Serotonin syndrome
● Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
● Stimulant intoxication
● Pheochromocytoma crisis
● Severe heat illness
NPLEX trap
A thyroid hormone level alone does not determine whether thyroid storm is present. The
diagnosis depends heavily on systemic clinical findings.
Case overview
Known hyperthyroidism + high fever + extreme tachycardia + delirium or organ failure =
thyroid storm until proven otherwise.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Thyroid Association. Current hyperthyroidism and thyrotoxicosis guidance.
14
Anaphylaxis
4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral
GEA: DiagnosisSEA: Physical & Clinical Diagnosis
Clinical case
Patient profile
A 29-year-old man develops diffuse itching, facial swelling, throat tightness and difficulty
breathing several minutes after eating a dessert containing peanuts.
Medical history
● Peanut allergy
● Mild asthma
Vital signs
● Blood pressure: 78/46 mmHg
● Heart rate: 132/min
● Respiratory rate: 32/min
● Oxygen saturation: 86% on room air
Physical examination
The patient has diffuse urticaria, swollen lips, inspiratory stridor and bilateral wheezing. He
appears frightened and is becoming drowsy.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-053
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-054
Which finding represents the greatest immediate threat?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-055
What is the first-line treatment?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-056
Which action is most appropriate after administering epinephrine?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Acute severe asthma
● Angioedema
● Vasovagal reaction
● Panic attack
● Foreign-body airway obstruction
NPLEX trap
Do not delay epinephrine while waiting for every diagnostic criterion to appear. A rash may also
be absent in severe anaphylaxis.
Case overview
Rapid multisystem allergic reaction involving airway, breathing or circulation requires
immediate intramuscular epinephrine.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
AAAAI/ACAAI Joint Task Force. Current anaphylaxis practice parameter.
15
Moderate-to-Severe Croup
4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral
GEA: DiagnosisSEA: Physical & Clinical Diagnosis
Clinical case
Patient profile
A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic with a barking cough, hoarse voice and noisy
breathing. The illness began with rhinorrhea and low-grade fever one day earlier.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 38.0°C
● Heart rate: 148/min
● Respiratory rate: 38/min
● Oxygen saturation: 93% on room air
Physical examination
The child has inspiratory stridor while resting, suprasternal retractions and decreased air entry.
The child is alert but agitated. There is no drooling.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-057
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-058
Which finding indicates clinically important upper-airway obstruction?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-059
Which finding would make epiglottitis more likely?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Epiglottitis
● Bacterial tracheitis
● Foreign-body aspiration
● Retropharyngeal abscess
● Anaphylaxis
NPLEX trap
Do not force a distressed child with possible epiglottitis to lie supine or undergo an unnecessary
throat examination.
Case overview
Barking cough and hoarseness suggest croup; drooling, tripod positioning and toxic
appearance suggest a more dangerous alternative.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
Canadian Paediatric Society. Current acute croup guidance.
16
Testicular Torsion
4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral
GEA: DiagnosisSEA: Physical & Clinical Diagnosis
Clinical case
Patient profile
A 16-year-old boy develops sudden severe left testicular pain while sleeping. He has nausea
and has vomited twice. He denies dysuria, urethral discharge and recent trauma.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.1°C
● Blood pressure: 126/76 mmHg
● Heart rate: 108/min
Physical examination
The left testis is swollen, tender and positioned higher than the right. It lies in a horizontal
orientation. The left cremasteric reflex is absent.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-061
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-062
Which presentation would be more consistent with epididymitis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-063
Which physical finding most strongly supports torsion?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Epididymitis
● Torsion of the appendix testis
● Incarcerated inguinal hernia
● Testicular trauma
● Orchitis
NPLEX trap
Pain relief with elevation of the testicle is not sufficiently reliable to exclude torsion.
Case overview
Sudden testicular pain + nausea + high-riding testis + absent cremasteric reflex =
immediate surgical referral.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Urological Association. Current acute-scrotum and testicular-torsion educational guidance.
17
Giant Cell Arteritis
4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral
GEA: DiagnosisSEA: Physical & Clinical Diagnosis
Clinical case
Patient profile
A 74-year-old woman presents with a new right-sided temporal headache, scalp tenderness and
fatigue. She reports pain in her jaw while chewing and two brief episodes of blurred vision in the
right eye.
She has also experienced morning stiffness in both shoulders for several months.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.5°C
● Blood pressure: 146/82 mmHg
● Heart rate: 88/min
Physical examination
The right temporal artery is tender, thickened and has reduced pulsation. Shoulder movement is
painful but neurological examination is otherwise normal.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-065
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-066
Which symptom is particularly predictive of cranial arterial ischemia?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important association
The shoulder and hip girdle stiffness suggests coexisting polymyalgia rheumatica.
Important differentials
● Migraine
● Tension headache
● Temporomandibular joint disorder
● Intracranial mass
● Carotid or vertebral vascular disease
NPLEX trap
A normal neurological examination does not exclude giant cell arteritis or imminent visual loss.
Case overview
New headache after age 50 + jaw claudication + temporal tenderness + visual symptoms
= immediate action.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American College of Rheumatology/Vasculitis Foundation. Current giant-cell arteritis guidance.
18
Necrotizing Soft-Tissue Infection
4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral
GEA: DiagnosisSEA: Physical & Clinical Diagnosis
Clinical case
Patient profile
A 59-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents with severe pain in his left lower leg.
He scratched the leg on a metal shelf two days ago.
The area has rapidly become swollen and discoloured. He reports fever, vomiting and profound
weakness.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 39.4°C
● Blood pressure: 86/54 mmHg
● Heart rate: 132/min
● Respiratory rate: 28/min
● Oxygen saturation: 94%
Physical examination
The lower leg is edematous with rapidly spreading erythema, violaceous discoloration and
several hemorrhagic bullae. The pain extends far beyond the visible skin changes. Crepitus is
present.
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Severe cellulitis
● Compartment syndrome
● Deep-vein thrombosis
● Pyomyositis
● Gas gangrene
● Calciphylaxis
NPLEX trap
Do not wait for crepitus, bullae or skin necrosis before considering the diagnosis. These may be
late findings.
Case overview
Rapid progression + disproportionate pain + systemic toxicity = necrotizing infection
until excluded.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
Infectious Diseases Society of America. Current clinical practice guidance.
Surviving Sepsis Campaign. Current sepsis and septic-shock guidance.
19
Cervical Radiculopathy
4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral
GEA: DiagnosisSEA: Physical & Clinical Diagnosis
Clinical case
Patient profile
A 47-year-old office worker presents with neck pain radiating into the right lateral forearm,
thumb and index finger. The symptoms worsen when he rotates and extends his neck toward
the affected side.
He denies trauma, fever, gait disturbance and bladder dysfunction.
Physical examination
● Mild weakness of right elbow flexion and wrist extension
● Reduced right biceps reflex
● Decreased sensation over the thumb
● No lower-extremity hyperreflexia
● Normal gait
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-073
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-074
Which examination test is most appropriate?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-075
Which finding would indicate possible cervical myelopathy rather than isolated radiculopathy?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-076
What is the most appropriate initial approach in this stable patient?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Median neuropathy
● Brachial plexopathy
● Shoulder pathology
● Thoracic outlet syndrome
● Cervical myelopathy
● Pancoast tumour
NPLEX trap
Do not confuse a single nerve-root lesion with a peripheral mononeuropathy. Compare the
dermatomal pattern, reflexes, myotomes and provocative tests.
Case overview
Dermatomal pain + myotomal weakness + reflex change = radiculopathy; long-tract signs
suggest myelopathy.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American College of Radiology. Current Appropriateness Criteria for spine-related presentations.
20
Anterior Cruciate Ligament Tear
4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral
GEA: DiagnosisSEA: Physical & Clinical Diagnosis
Clinical case
Patient profile
A 24-year-old soccer player reports twisting the right knee while abruptly changing direction.
She heard a “pop,” fell to the ground and developed substantial knee swelling within two hours.
She now reports instability and a sensation that the knee will give way.
Physical examination
● Moderate knee effusion
● Reduced flexion because of swelling
● Positive Lachman test
● Increased anterior tibial translation with a soft endpoint
● No obvious deformity
● Distal pulses and sensation are intact
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-077
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-078
Which examination test is most useful for assessing the ACL?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-079
Which test is most appropriate for a possible associated meniscal tear?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-080
Which new finding would require urgent rather than routine assessment?
Patient profile
A 63-year-old man presents with sudden, severe chest pain that began while he was lifting a
heavy object. He describes the pain as “tearing” and says it radiates between his shoulder
blades.
Medical history
● Poorly controlled hypertension
● Tobacco use
● Hyperlipidemia
Vital signs
● Temperature: 36.7°C
● Right-arm blood pressure: 198/106 mmHg
● Left-arm blood pressure: 168/92 mmHg
● Heart rate: 112/min
● Respiratory rate: 24/min
● Oxygen saturation: 95% on room air
Physical examination
The patient is pale and diaphoretic. The right radial pulse is stronger than the left. A new early
diastolic murmur is heard along the left sternal border.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-081
Which historical feature most strongly supports acute aortic dissection?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-082
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-083
Which examination finding is most concerning for extension into a major arterial branch?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-084
Which new finding would indicate neurological involvement?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-085
What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-086
Which action should be avoided before dissection is excluded?
Patient profile
A 24-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, weakness,
and increasing thirst. She has been unwell with influenza-like symptoms and has taken very
little insulin during the past two days.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 38.1°C
● Blood pressure: 94/60 mmHg
● Heart rate: 124/min
● Respiratory rate: 30/min and deep
● Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
Physical examination
She is drowsy but arousable. Her mucous membranes are dry. Her breath has a fruity odor.
Diffuse mild abdominal tenderness is present without rigidity.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-087
Which aspect of the history most likely precipitated the current condition?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-088
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-089
What is the term for the patient’s respiratory pattern?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-090
Which bedside test is most important initially?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-091
Which complication requires particularly close monitoring during treatment?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
● Sepsis
● Starvation ketosis
● Alcoholic ketoacidosis
● Acute abdomen
● Toxic ingestion
NPLEX trap
Abdominal pain may occur in diabetic ketoacidosis. Reassess the abdomen after metabolic
stabilization before assuming a surgical diagnosis.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Diabetes Association. Standards of Care in Diabetes—2026.
Patient profile
A 46-year-old woman develops a sudden severe headache while exercising. She describes it as
“the worst headache of my life.” She vomited and briefly lost consciousness.
Medical history
● Hypertension
● Tobacco use
● Sister with a cerebral aneurysm
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.0°C
● Blood pressure: 188/104 mmHg
● Heart rate: 98/min
● Respiratory rate: 20/min
Physical examination
The patient is photophobic and has neck stiffness. She is alert but appears distressed. No focal
neurological deficit is initially detected.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-093
Which history feature is most concerning?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-094
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-095
Which physical finding may be present despite the absence of meningitis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-096
Which alternative diagnosis must also be urgently considered in a thunderclap headache?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-097
What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-098
Which change would indicate clinical deterioration?
Patient profile
A 58-year-old woman presents with cramping abdominal pain, repeated bilious vomiting,
abdominal distension, and inability to pass stool or flatus for 24 hours.
Medical history
● Previous open abdominal hysterectomy
● Hypertension
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.8°C
● Blood pressure: 104/66 mmHg
● Heart rate: 112/min
● Respiratory rate: 22/min
Physical examination
The abdomen is distended and tympanitic. High-pitched bowel sounds are heard. There is
diffuse tenderness without initial rigidity.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-099
Which historical factor most strongly increases the risk of this condition?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-100
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-101
Which finding would suggest bowel ischemia or strangulation?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-102
Which examination finding is expected early in mechanical obstruction?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Ileus
● Large-bowel obstruction
● Gastroenteritis
● Mesenteric ischemia
● Perforated viscus
● Severe constipation
NPLEX trap
Temporary passage of stool early in the illness does not fully exclude bowel obstruction because
distal contents may still be expelled.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
World Society of Emergency Surgery. Current emergency general-surgery guidance.
Patient profile
A 31-year-old woman presents with sudden severe right-sided pelvic pain accompanied by
nausea and vomiting. She has a known 7-cm ovarian cyst.
Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. She denies vaginal bleeding.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.4°C
● Blood pressure: 118/74 mmHg
● Heart rate: 108/min
● Respiratory rate: 20/min
Physical examination
There is marked right-lower-quadrant and pelvic tenderness. Guarding is mild. No abdominal
rigidity is present.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-105
Which historical factor most increases the likelihood of ovarian torsion?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-106
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-107
Which diagnosis must be excluded in every reproductive-age patient with acute pelvic pain?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-108
Which characteristic best differentiates torsion from uncomplicated pelvic inflammatory disease?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Ectopic pregnancy
● Ruptured ovarian cyst
● Appendicitis
● Pelvic inflammatory disease
● Ureteric stone
NPLEX trap
A normal Doppler result does not reliably override a highly suspicious clinical presentation.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. Current practice guidance.
Patient profile
A 10-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for repeated episodes of intense crying. During
each episode, the child pulls both knees toward the abdomen and becomes pale. Between
episodes, the child initially appears tired but comfortable.
The child has vomited twice.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.6°C
● Heart rate: 142/min
● Respiratory rate: 30/min
● Oxygen saturation: 98%
Physical examination
The abdomen is mildly distended. A sausage-shaped mass is palpated in the right upper
abdomen. The diaper contains stool mixed with blood and mucus.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-111
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-112
What causes the intermittent nature of the pain?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-113
Which stool description is classically associated with this condition?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-114
Which finding would suggest bowel perforation or advanced ischemia?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-115
What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-116
Which diagnosis is more likely when an infant has progressive non-bilious projectile vomiting without episodic pain?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Gastroenteritis
● Volvulus
● Incarcerated hernia
● Pyloric stenosis
● Meckel diverticulum
● Child abuse
NPLEX trap
The classic triad is not present in every case. Episodic pain and lethargy may precede visible
blood in the stool.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Academy of Pediatrics. Current pediatric emergency guidance.
Patient profile
A 48-year-old woman presents with fever, shaking chills, nausea, dysuria, and left-sided flank
pain. She became confused shortly before arrival.
Medical history
● Type 2 diabetes mellitus
● Recurrent urinary tract infections
Vital signs
● Temperature: 39.5°C
● Blood pressure: 84/52 mmHg
● Heart rate: 128/min
● Respiratory rate: 26/min
● Oxygen saturation: 94%
Physical examination
The patient is lethargic. Left costovertebral-angle tenderness is marked. The lower abdomen is
mildly tender.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-117
What is the most likely primary diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-118
Which finding indicates progression to sepsis or septic shock?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-119
Which examination maneuver is most relevant?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-120
Which alternative diagnosis should be considered when flank pain is severe and colicky with hematuria?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-121
Why is an obstructed infected urinary system especially dangerous?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Ureteric stone
● Renal abscess
● Acute appendicitis
● Pelvic inflammatory disease
● Diverticulitis
● Musculoskeletal flank pain
NPLEX trap
A urinary infection in a patient with hypotension, confusion, diabetes, pregnancy, or possible
obstruction is not uncomplicated cystitis.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
Infectious Diseases Society of America. Current clinical practice guidance.
Surviving Sepsis Campaign. Current sepsis and septic-shock guidance.
Patient profile
A 52-year-old man presents for assessment of a pigmented lesion on his upper back. His
spouse reports that the lesion has enlarged and changed colour during the past six months.
Medical history
● Multiple blistering sunburns during childhood
● Frequent outdoor work
● Father previously treated for melanoma
Physical examination
The lesion is 11 mm in diameter, asymmetrical, and has an irregular border. It contains dark
brown, black, red, and pale areas. A small area recently bled without trauma.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-123
Which feature is represented by the “E” in the ABCDE melanoma assessment?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-124
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-125
Which historical feature increases melanoma risk?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-126
Which method is generally preferred for initial diagnostic sampling when feasible?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Dysplastic nevus
● Seborrheic keratosis
● Pigmented basal-cell carcinoma
● Lentigo
● Dermatofibroma
● Subungual hematoma
NPLEX trap
A lesion does not need to meet every ABCDE criterion to warrant biopsy. Evolution or an “ugly
duckling” appearance may be sufficient.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
National Comprehensive Cancer Network. Current clinical practice guidelines in oncology.
Patient profile
A 37-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis presents with increasing difficulty swallowing,
weak speech, shortness of breath, and inability to hold her head upright.
She recently developed pneumonia and was prescribed an antibiotic at an urgent-care clinic.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 38.5°C
● Blood pressure: 132/78 mmHg
● Heart rate: 118/min
● Respiratory rate: 30/min
● Oxygen saturation: 91% on room air
Physical examination
She has bilateral ptosis, fatigable facial weakness, nasal speech, weak cough, and shallow
respirations. Sensory examination is normal.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-129
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-130
Which feature is characteristic of myasthenia gravis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-131
Which examination finding represents the greatest immediate risk?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-132
Which common factor may precipitate a myasthenic crisis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-133
Which bedside assessment is particularly important?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Cholinergic crisis
● Guillain–Barré syndrome
● Botulism
● Brainstem stroke
● Lambert–Eaton syndrome
● Severe electrolyte disturbance
NPLEX trap
A normal pulse oximetry reading does not reliably exclude early neuromuscular respiratory
failure.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
Myasthenia Gravis Foundation of America. International consensus guidance for management of myasthenia gravis.
Patient profile
A 29-year-old man presents six hours after sustaining a closed tibial fracture during a
motor-vehicle collision. His lower leg was immobilized in a circumferential cast.
He reports rapidly worsening pain despite opioid medication.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.2°C
● Blood pressure: 142/86 mmHg
● Heart rate: 116/min
● Respiratory rate: 22/min
Physical examination
The lower leg is tense and swollen. Passive extension of the toes causes severe pain.
Sensation between the first and second toes is reduced. The dorsalis pedis pulse remains
palpable.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-135
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-136
Which is often the earliest important clinical feature?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-137
Does the presence of a distal pulse exclude compartment syndrome?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-138
Which examination finding indicates nerve compromise?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Deep-vein thrombosis
● Arterial injury
● Fracture-associated pain
● Cellulitis
● Necrotizing infection
● Peripheral nerve injury
NPLEX trap
Do not wait for loss of pulse. A palpable distal pulse does not rule out compartment syndrome.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. Current clinical guidance and appropriate-use criteria.
Patient profile
A 49-year-old man presents with progressive shortness of breath, chest pressure, weakness,
and lightheadedness. He was diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer three months ago.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.1°C
● Blood pressure: 84/62 mmHg
● Heart rate: 126/min
● Respiratory rate: 28/min
● Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air
Physical examination
The patient appears distressed. Neck veins are distended while he is sitting upright. Heart
sounds are distant. Lungs are relatively clear. Systolic blood pressure decreases noticeably
during inspiration.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-141
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-142
Which combination is traditionally called Beck triad?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-143
What is pulsus paradoxus?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-144
Which additional history most strongly increases suspicion for tamponade?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-145
Which finding helps distinguish tamponade from left-sided cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Massive pulmonary embolism
● Tension pneumothorax
● Right ventricular infarction
● Constrictive pericarditis
● Severe heart failure
NPLEX trap
The complete Beck triad may be absent. Unexplained hypotension with jugular venous
distension should prompt consideration of obstructive shock.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association. Current aortic, pericardial, and vascular-disease guidance.
Patient profile
A 72-year-old woman presents with sudden severe central abdominal pain and nausea. She
describes the pain as constant and unbearable.
Medical history
● Atrial fibrillation
● Hypertension
● Peripheral arterial disease
Medications
● Metoprolol
● She stopped taking her anticoagulant three weeks ago
Vital signs
● Temperature: 37.4°C
● Blood pressure: 148/86 mmHg
● Heart rate: 118/min, irregularly irregular
● Respiratory rate: 24/min
Physical examination
The patient appears distressed. The abdomen is initially soft with only mild diffuse tenderness
despite the severity of the reported pain.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-147
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-148
Which risk factor is most relevant?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-149
Which phrase best describes the classic early examination pattern?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-150
Which new finding would suggest bowel infarction or perforation?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-151
Which alternative diagnosis is most likely when severe abdominal and back pain occurs with hypotension and a pulsatile abdominal mass?
Patient profile
A 38-year-old woman with primary adrenal insufficiency presents with vomiting, diarrhea,
profound weakness, abdominal pain, and dizziness. She developed influenza-like symptoms
two days earlier and has been unable to keep her medication down.
Medications
● Hydrocortisone
● Fludrocortisone
Vital signs
● Temperature: 38.4°C
● Blood pressure: 78/46 mmHg
● Heart rate: 124/min
● Respiratory rate: 24/min
● Oxygen saturation: 97%
Physical examination
The patient is lethargic and dehydrated. Diffuse abdominal tenderness is present without rigidity.
Hyperpigmentation is noted over the palmar creases and buccal mucosa.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-153
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-154
Which event most likely precipitated this emergency?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-155
Which electrolyte pattern is commonly associated with primary adrenal insufficiency?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-156
Which physical finding supports primary rather than secondary adrenal insufficiency?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-157
Which competing diagnosis must also be considered in a febrile hypotensive patient?
Patient profile
A 41-year-old man presents with progressive tingling and weakness beginning in both feet and
ascending toward the thighs. One week earlier, he recovered from a diarrheal illness.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 36.8°C
● Blood pressure: 138/84 mmHg
● Heart rate: 104/min
● Respiratory rate: 20/min
● Oxygen saturation: 97%
Physical examination
There is symmetric lower-extremity weakness, absent ankle and patellar reflexes, and mild
distal paresthesia. Plantar responses are flexor. Cranial nerves are initially intact.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-159
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-160
Which examination finding most strongly supports this diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-161
Which finding would indicate impending respiratory compromise?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-162
Which autonomic complication may occur?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-163
Which finding would be less typical and should prompt reconsideration of the diagnosis?
Patient profile
A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation develops sudden severe pain in the left leg. He reports
numbness and difficulty moving the foot.
Medications
● Metoprolol
● He stopped anticoagulation because of bruising
Vital signs
● Temperature: 36.9°C
● Blood pressure: 146/84 mmHg
● Heart rate: 112/min, irregularly irregular
● Respiratory rate: 20/min
Physical examination
The left foot is pale, cool, and mottled. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are absent.
Capillary refill is markedly delayed. Sensation and motor strength are reduced.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-165
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-166
Which underlying condition most likely caused this event?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-167
Which set of findings represents the classic “six Ps”?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-168
Which finding indicates a threatened limb?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-169
Which feature would be more consistent with deep-vein thrombosis?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Deep-vein thrombosis
● Compartment syndrome
● Phlegmasia cerulea dolens
● Acute neuropathy
● Severe vasospasm
● Aortic dissection with branch involvement
NPLEX trap
Do not apply compression or massage when acute arterial occlusion is suspected.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association. Current aortic, pericardial, and vascular-disease guidance.
Patient profile
A 57-year-old highly myopic man reports sudden flashes of light in the left eye followed by
numerous new floaters. He now sees a dark curtain moving across the lateral part of his visual
field.
He denies eye pain.
Vital signs
Normal.
Physical examination
Visual acuity is reduced in the affected eye. The external eye is not red. Pupils are equal,
although a relative afferent pupillary defect may be present.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-171
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-172
Which historical factor increases the risk?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-173
Which feature distinguishes retinal detachment from acute angle-closure glaucoma?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-174
What is the meaning of a “curtain” moving across the vision?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-175
Which additional symptom may suggest vitreous hemorrhage or a retinal tear?
Patient profile
A 45-year-old man presents with severe midline back pain, fever, and progressive weakness in
both legs.
Medical history
● Injection-drug use
● Recent skin abscess
● Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Vital signs
● Temperature: 39.1°C
● Blood pressure: 102/66 mmHg
● Heart rate: 116/min
● Respiratory rate: 22/min
Physical examination
There is marked tenderness over the lower thoracic spine. Hip flexion and knee extension are
weak bilaterally. Sensation is reduced below the umbilicus. Reflexes are brisk in the lower
extremities.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-177
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-178
Which historical factor most increases suspicion?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-179
Which examination finding suggests spinal cord involvement?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Vertebral osteomyelitis
● Discitis
● Epidural hematoma
● Metastatic spinal cord compression
● Cauda equina syndrome
● Mechanical back pain
NPLEX trap
The full triad of fever, back pain, and neurological deficit may not be present early. Risk factors
and progressive symptoms matter.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
Infectious Diseases Society of America. Current clinical practice guidance.
Surviving Sepsis Campaign. Current sepsis and septic-shock guidance.
Patient profile
A 32-year-old woman at 35 weeks’ gestation presents with severe headache, blurred vision,
right-upper-quadrant pain, and rapidly increasing swelling of her hands and face.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 36.8°C
● Blood pressure: 174/112 mmHg
● Heart rate: 96/min
● Respiratory rate: 20/min
● Oxygen saturation: 97%
Physical examination
She has brisk reflexes with two beats of ankle clonus. Facial and hand edema are present.
Right-upper-quadrant tenderness is noted.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-183
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-184
Which finding most strongly indicates severe disease?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-185
What is the significance of right-upper-quadrant pain?
Patient profile
An 82-year-old woman is brought by her daughter because of sudden confusion, agitation, and
visual hallucinations that began yesterday. She was independent and cognitively intact three
days ago.
Medical history
● Hypertension
● Osteoarthritis
● Mild urinary incontinence
Medications
● Amlodipine
● Acetaminophen
● Recently started diphenhydramine for sleep
Vital signs
● Temperature: 38.3°C
● Blood pressure: 102/64 mmHg
● Heart rate: 110/min
● Respiratory rate: 24/min
● Oxygen saturation: 93%
Physical examination
Attention fluctuates during the interview. She cannot recite the months backward. Suprapubic
tenderness is present. No focal neurological deficit is detected.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-189
What is the most likely syndrome?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-190
Which finding best distinguishes delirium from dementia?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-191
Which factor may be contributing to the presentation?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-192
Which underlying cause is most likely in this patient?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-193
Which finding would require immediate stroke evaluation?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Dementia
● Stroke
● Sepsis
● Medication toxicity
● Hypoglycemia
● Electrolyte disturbance
● Urinary retention
● Hypoxia
NPLEX trap
Do not attribute acute confusion in an older adult to age or chronic dementia without searching
for a reversible medical cause.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Psychiatric Association. DSM-5-TR and current practice guidance.
Goldfrank’s Toxicologic Emergencies. Current edition.
Patient profile
A 44-year-old recreational tennis player reports sudden pain in the back of the left ankle while
pushing off to reach a ball. He felt as though someone had kicked him and heard a snapping
sound.
Physical examination
There is swelling and tenderness several centimetres above the calcaneus. A palpable tendon
gap is present. The patient cannot perform a single-leg heel raise.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-195
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-196
Which examination test is most appropriate?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-197
What constitutes a positive Thompson test?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-198
Which medication exposure may increase the risk of tendon rupture?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-199
Which feature helps distinguish rupture from a simple ankle sprain?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Gastrocnemius strain
● Plantaris rupture
● Retrocalcaneal bursitis
● Ankle sprain
● Deep-vein thrombosis
● Calcaneal fracture
NPLEX trap
Some plantar flexion may remain because other muscles can still act. Preserved weak
movement does not exclude complete Achilles rupture.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. Current clinical guidance and appropriate-use criteria.
Patient profile
A 27-year-old man is brought to the clinic after a motorcycle collision. He reports severe
right-sided chest pain and rapidly worsening shortness of breath.
Vital signs
● Blood pressure: 78/48 mmHg
● Heart rate: 138/min
● Respiratory rate: 34/min
● Oxygen saturation: 82% on room air
Physical examination
The patient is distressed and cyanotic. The right side of the chest expands less than the left.
Breath sounds are absent on the right, and percussion is hyperresonant. Neck veins are
distended. The trachea appears displaced toward the left.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-201
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-202
What is the principal mechanism causing hypotension?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-203
Which finding best distinguishes tension pneumothorax from a simple pneumothorax?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-204
Which finding may be absent until late?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-205
What is the most appropriate immediate action?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-206
Which alternative diagnosis may also produce hypotension, jugular venous distension, and clear lungs?
Patient profile
A 64-year-old woman presents with fever, shaking chills, right-upper-quadrant pain, nausea, and
yellowing of her eyes.
Medical history
● Gallstones
● Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Vital signs
● Temperature: 39.3°C
● Blood pressure: 86/54 mmHg
● Heart rate: 126/min
● Respiratory rate: 26/min
● Oxygen saturation: 95%
Physical examination
The patient is jaundiced, confused, and diaphoretic. There is right-upper-quadrant tenderness
without marked abdominal rigidity.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-207
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-208
Which three findings make up Charcot triad?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-209
Which additional findings constitute Reynolds pentad?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-210
Which underlying process most commonly causes this condition?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-211
Which finding would be more typical of uncomplicated biliary colic?
Patient profile
A 56-year-old woman receiving chemotherapy for acute leukemia presents with weakness,
chills, and a temperature of 38.2°C. Her last chemotherapy treatment was eight days ago.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 38.2°C
● Blood pressure: 90/56 mmHg
● Heart rate: 120/min
● Respiratory rate: 24/min
● Oxygen saturation: 94%
Physical examination
The patient appears pale and lethargic. Oral ulcers are present. There is no focal lung finding,
abdominal rigidity, or obvious skin infection.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-213
What is the most concerning diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-214
Which history detail is most relevant?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-215
Why may focal examination findings be minimal?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-216
Which temperature pattern should trigger urgent evaluation in a chemotherapy patient?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Chemotherapy adverse effects
● Tumour lysis syndrome
● Viral infection
● Pneumonia
● Catheter-associated infection
● Mucositis-related bacteremia
NPLEX trap
Do not be reassured by the absence of focal infection findings in a neutropenic patient.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
Infectious Diseases Society of America. Current clinical practice guidance.
Surviving Sepsis Campaign. Current sepsis and septic-shock guidance.
Patient profile
A 39-year-old man presents with three weeks of fever, fatigue, night sweats, reduced appetite,
and unintentional weight loss.
Medical history
● Injection-drug use
● Previous skin abscess
● No known congenital heart disease
Vital signs
● Temperature: 38.7°C
● Blood pressure: 108/66 mmHg
● Heart rate: 112/min
● Respiratory rate: 20/min
Physical examination
A new systolic murmur is heard. Several tender red nodules are present on the finger pads.
Small linear hemorrhages are visible beneath the fingernails.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-219
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-220
What are the tender nodules on the finger pads called?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-221
Which lesions are classically painless and found on the palms or soles?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-222
Which acute complication requires immediate neurological assessment?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-223
Which diagnostic step is particularly important before antimicrobial treatment when feasible?
Patient profile
A 22-year-old woman presents with severe unilateral throat pain, fever, difficulty swallowing, and
a muffled voice. She reports that the pain radiates toward the left ear.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 39.0°C
● Blood pressure: 118/72 mmHg
● Heart rate: 116/min
● Respiratory rate: 20/min
● Oxygen saturation: 97%
Physical examination
The patient has difficulty opening her mouth. The left tonsillar region is swollen, and the uvula is
displaced toward the right. She is drooling but has no stridor.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-225
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-226
What is trismus?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-227
Which finding indicates possible airway compromise?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-228
Which diagnosis should be considered when there is neck stiffness, posterior pharyngeal swelling, and limited neck extension?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-229
Which examination action should be performed cautiously?
Patient profile
A 3-year-old boy is brought for assessment of bruising. His caregiver states that the child “fell
while walking across the carpet.”
Physical examination
Bruises are present on the ears, neck, inner thighs, back, and upper arms. Some bruises are
yellow-brown, while others are dark blue. A loop-shaped mark is present on the posterior thigh.
The child becomes silent and withdrawn when the caregiver enters the room.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-231
Which finding is most concerning for non-accidental injury?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Accidental trauma
● Bleeding disorder
● Cultural or therapeutic skin practices
● Connective-tissue disorder
● Vasculitis
● Dermatological disease
NPLEX trap
The clinician does not need to prove abuse before making a mandated report. Reasonable
suspicion is sufficient.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Academy of Pediatrics. Current guidance for evaluation of suspected child physical abuse.
Patient profile
A 71-year-old man presents with sudden painless loss of vision in the right eye. The loss
occurred 45 minutes ago.
Medical history
● Atrial fibrillation
● Carotid artery disease
● Hypertension
● Tobacco use
Physical examination
Visual acuity is markedly reduced in the right eye. A relative afferent pupillary defect is present.
The eye is not red or painful. Funduscopic examination suggests a pale retina with a central red
fovea.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-237
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-238
What is the classic funduscopic appearance?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-239
Which systemic source should be investigated?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-240
Which feature distinguishes this condition from acute angle-closure glaucoma?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-241
Why should a neurological assessment also be performed?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Retinal detachment
● Vitreous hemorrhage
● Central retinal vein occlusion
● Optic neuritis
● Giant cell arteritis
● Ocular migraine
NPLEX trap
Sudden painless visual loss is an emergency even when the eye appears externally normal.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Heart Association/American Stroke Association. Current acute ischemic stroke guidance.
Canadian Stroke Best Practices. Current recommendations.
Patient profile
An 81-year-old woman falls from standing height and develops severe left hip and groin pain.
She cannot bear weight.
Medical history
● Osteoporosis
● Previous vertebral compression fracture
● Long-term corticosteroid use
Vital signs
● Temperature: 36.8°C
● Blood pressure: 146/82 mmHg
● Heart rate: 102/min
● Respiratory rate: 18/min
Physical examination
The left leg appears shortened and externally rotated. Gentle movement of the hip produces
severe pain. Distal pulses and sensation are intact.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-243
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-244
Which risk factor is most clinically relevant?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-245
Which complication is particularly associated with an intracapsular femoral-neck fracture?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-246
Can a patient with an impacted hip fracture sometimes still bear limited weight?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-247
Which additional issue should be assessed after the fall?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Pelvic fracture
● Hip dislocation
● Acetabular fracture
● Severe osteoarthritis
● Greater-trochanteric pain syndrome
● Lumbar radiculopathy
NPLEX trap
Normal initial radiographs do not always exclude an occult hip fracture when clinical suspicion
remains high.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. Current clinical guidance and appropriate-use criteria.
Patient profile
A 35-year-old man presents with agitation, sweating, diarrhea, tremor, and fever. He takes
sertraline and began linezolid two days ago for a resistant skin infection. He also uses an
over-the-counter product containing dextromethorphan.
Vital signs
● Temperature: 39.2°C
● Blood pressure: 168/94 mmHg
● Heart rate: 132/min
● Respiratory rate: 26/min
● Oxygen saturation: 96%
Physical examination
The patient is restless and confused. Pupils are dilated. Tremor, inducible ankle clonus, ocular
clonus, and marked lower-extremity hyperreflexia are present.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-249
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-250
Which examination finding is especially characteristic?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-251
Which medication combination likely precipitated the syndrome?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-252
Which feature favours serotonin syndrome over neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Patient profile
A 46-year-old woman presents with rapidly progressive enlargement and redness of the left
breast over six weeks. She reports heaviness but little pain. Antibiotics prescribed for presumed
mastitis produced no improvement.
She is not pregnant or breastfeeding.
Physical examination
The left breast is enlarged, warm, and diffusely erythematous. The skin has a thickened
“orange-peel” appearance. The nipple is newly retracted. Firm, enlarged left axillary lymph
nodes are present. No discrete breast mass is easily palpated.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-255
What is the most concerning diagnosis?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-256
What causes the peau d’orange appearance?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-257
Which feature makes uncomplicated lactational mastitis less likely?
Answer and clinical rationale
References
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-258
Does the absence of a clearly palpable mass exclude breast malignancy?
Open case review, differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials
● Lactational or non-lactational mastitis
● Breast abscess
● Locally advanced breast carcinoma
● Contact dermatitis
● Fat necrosis
● Congestive breast edema
NPLEX trap
Persistent inflammatory breast changes that do not respond appropriately to antimicrobial
treatment require investigation for malignancy.
Reference framework
NPLEX Part II Clinical Science Examinations: Blueprint and Study Guide. Revised March 2026; applicable to the August 2026 administration.
Merck Manual Professional Edition. Relevant clinical topic; current online edition.
National Comprehensive Cancer Network. Current clinical practice guidelines in oncology.
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